CPL/IR (A) (ATP)
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWKEDGE
Why should flight speed above VNE be avoided?
A- Excessive induced drag will result in structural.
B- Design limit load factors is so impaired that the aircraft.
C- Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable.
D- Load factor decreases.
Maximum structural arousing speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during
A- Abrupt maneuvers.
B- Normal operations.
C- Flight in smooth air.
D- Dive and climbs.
Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation
A- varies over time as the agonic line shifts.
B- varies for different headings of the same aircraft.
C- Is the same for all aircraft in the same locality.
D- different aircraft's are the same varies heading
(Refer to figure 5 on page 45.) The horizontal dashed line point 0 to e represents the
A- ultimate load factor.
B- Positive limit load factor.
C- Airspeed range for normal operations.
D- Negative limit for normal operations.
FIGURE 5.-VELOCITY VS. G-LOADS.
5. (Refer to figure 5 above.) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the
A- green arc.
B- yellow arc.
C- white arc.
D- red arc.
6. (Refer to figure 5 above.) The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the
A- upper limit of the yellow arc.
B- upper limit of the green arc.
C- blue radial line.
D- white radial line
Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?
A- The never-exceed speed
B- The power-off stall speed.
C- The maneuvering speed.
D- Flaps speed.
8. Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for
A- installation and instrument error.
B- instrument error.
C- non-standard temperature.
D- standard temperature.
9. True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for
A- installation or instrument error.
B- non-standard temperature.
C- altitude and nonstandard temperature.
D- Altitude and standard temperature.
What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?
A- It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.
B- It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
C- It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.
D- it is less reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator
A- is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicators always vacuum = driven.
B- indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
C- indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordinator.
D- it is always hydraulic the turn and slip indicate always hydraulic driven
Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft
A- gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.
B- descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment.
C- throttle is advanced very abruptly.
D- Gains altitude with lean fuel/air mixture.
13. What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases?
A- The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases.
B- The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.
C- The density of air entering the carburetor decreases.
D- The density of air entering the carburetor increases.
14. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the
A- volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
B- weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.
C- weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.
D- volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburator
15. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to
A- decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.
B- decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density.
C- increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
D- increase the amount of fuel of fuel and density of the air.
16. At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the
A- engine to overheat.
B- fouling of spark plugs.
C- engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.
D- increasing the cylinder heat temperature
17. The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the
A- throttle.
B- manifold pressure.
C- mixture control.
D- Picht lever.
18. Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel
E- decreases while the volume of air decreases.
F- remains constant while the volume of air decreases.
G- remains constant while the density of air decreases.
decreases while the density of air decreases.
19. The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which
A- cylinder head temperatures are the coolest.
B- the most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting.
C- a given power can be obtained with the highest manifold pressure or throttle setting.
D- cylinder head temperatures are the hotets.
20. The mixture control can be adjusted, which
A- prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes.
B- regulates the amount of airflow through the carburetor's venturi.
C- prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs.
D- regulates prevents the fuel/air mixture when is landing.
21. What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance?
A- As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B- As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C- As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
D- As temperature density decreases, thrust decreases.
22. Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat?
A- It enriches the fuel/air mixture.
B- It leans the fuel/air mixture.
23. A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that may be caused by
A- rapid opening and closing of the throttle.
B- carburetor ice forming on the throttle valve.
C- operating with an excessively rich fuel/air mixture.
D- chafing on the cables.
24. Leaving the carburetor heat on during takeoff
A- leans the mixture for more power on takeoff.
25. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
A- there is an explosive increase of fuel caused by too rich a fuel/air mixture.
B- the spark plugs receive an electrical jolt caused by a short in the wiring.
C- the unburned fuel/air charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous combustion.
D- a spark plug is out of order.
26. Detonation can be caused by
A- a "rich" mixture.
B- low engine temperatures.
C- using a lower grade of fuel than recommended.
D- a 'lean' mixture
27. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
A- instantaneous combustion.
B- detonation.
C- pre-ignition.
D- cylinder fault.
28. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
A- the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
B- an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
C- the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon
D- the fuel mixture ignites normally.
29. Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no interruption; this
A- is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cutoff.
B- should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position.
C- is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong.
D- should not normally happen. Indicates a detonation in the cylinders.
30. A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to
A- idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off.
B- add full power, while holding the brakes, and momentarily turn off the ignition.
C- run on one magneto, lean the mixture, and look for a rise in manifold pressure.
D- start the engine and add full power.
31. The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is
A- carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.
B- a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing.
C- a broken magneto ground wire.
D- rich fuel/air mixture.
32. Applying carburetor heat will
A- not affect the mixture.
B- lean the fuel/air mixture.
C- enrich the fuel/air mixture.
Propeller efficiency is the
A- ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.
B- actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
C- ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.
D- ratio of reverse to feather
ratio of reverse to featherFor internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
A- a properly functioning cowl flap augmented.
B- the circulation of lubricating oil.
C- the proper freon/compressor output ratio.
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A- a defective bearing.
B- the oil level being too low.
C- operating with an excessively rich mixture.
D- a defective magneto.
Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of
A- exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit.
B- a power loss due to back pressure in the exhaust system.
C- a cold-running engine due to the heat withdrawn by the heater.
D- high exhaust gases temperature.
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the
engine
A- will not operate on one magneto.
B- cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position.
C- could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder.
D- will not operate on one magnetoes.
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
A- permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
B- prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight.
C- permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
D- prevents the reverse of the blades on the ground.
A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of
A- altitude and RPM.
B- airspeed and RPM.
C- airspeed and altitude.
D- airspeed and oil temperature.
Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?
A- As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged.
B- A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and, allows more engine power for takeoffs.
C- The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM.
D- a small blade angle, decrease the engine RPM.
41. To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a
A- large angle of attack and low RPM.
B- small angle of attack and high RPM.
C- large angle of attack and high RPM.
42. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
A- Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
B- As long as the airspeed is constant.
C- During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
D- During turn if the bank exceed 18
43. To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and
A- increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
B- decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
C- decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.
D- Increasing RPM by decreasing oil pressure.
44. In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being
A- decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
B- increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
C- increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted.
D- decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure.
45. A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate
the airplane to the
A- right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
B- left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
C- left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
D- right around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
46. In the Northern Hemisphere; a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
A- a right turn is entered from an east heading.
B- a left turn is entered from a west heading.
C- an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
D- a right turn is entered on west heading.
47. For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a
48. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A- presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
B- difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
C- magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
D- Presence of flaws in the temporary magnets of the compass.
49. In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is
accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A- a turn momentarily.
B- correctly when on a north or south heading,
C- a turn toward the south.
D- A turn to ward the east.
50. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
A- a left turn is entered from a north heading.
B- a right turn is entered from a north heading.
C- an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
D- above all of them are true
51. What is an important; airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
A- Never-exceed speed.
B- Maximum structural cruising speed.
C- Maneuvering speed.
D- Flaps speed.
52. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally irradiate initially a turn toward the east if
A- an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
B- an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
C- a left turn is entered from a north heading.
D- an aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
53. The pitot system provides impact; pressure for which instrument?
A- Altimeter.
B- Vertical-speed indicator.
C- Airspeed indicator.
D- Altimeter- Vertical.
54. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
A- Altimeter.
B- Vertical speed.
C- Airspeed.
D- Magnetic compass.
55. If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C- The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
D- The altimeter, turn-and-slip indicator and vertical speed.
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
A- Airspeed only.
B- Altimeter only.
C- Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
D- Turn and slip Indicator.
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A- Maneuvering speed.
B- Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C- Never-exceed speed.
D- Stall speed.
58. In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south
A- a left turn is entered from an east heading.
B- a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C- the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
D- a left turn in entered south heading.
59. (Refer to figure 4 below.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
A- 0 to 6OMPH.
B- 100 to 165 MPH.
C- 165 to 208 MPH.
D- 65 MPH
60. (Refer to figure 4 below.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
A- 100 MPH.
B- 165 MPH.
C- 208 MPH.
D- 65 MPH.
61. (Refer to figure 4 below.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
A- 60 to 100 MPH.
B- 60 to 208 MPH.
C- 65 to 165 MPH.
D- 100 to 165 MPH.
62. (Refer to figure 4 below.) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
A- Lower limit of the yellow arc.
B- Upper limit of the white arc.
C- The red radial line.
D- The green radial line.
FIGURE 4.
63. (Refer to figure 4 on page 42.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps an
landing gear in the landing configuration.
A- Upper limit of the green arc.
B- Upper limit of the white arc.
C- Lower it of the white arc.
D- Upper limit of the arc.
64. (Refer to figure 4 on page 42.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
A- 65 MPH.
B- 100 MPH.
C- 165 MPH.
D- 208 MPH.
65. (Refer to figure 4 on page 42.) Which identifies the normal flap operating range?
A- The lower limit of the white arc the green arc.
B- The green arc.
C- The White arc.
D- The red arc.
66. (Refer to figure 4 on page 42.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
A- Upper limit of the green arc.
B- Upper limit of the white arc.
C- Lower limit of the green arc.
D- Upper limit of the red are.
67. (Refer to figure 4 on page 42). maximum structural cruising speed.
A- 100 MPH.
B- 165 MPH.
C- 208 MPH.
D- 65 MPH.
68. (Refer to figure 3 below.) Altimeter 3 indicates;
A- 9,500 feet.
B- 10,950 feet.
C- 15,940 feet.
D- 1,500 feet.
FIGURE 3
69. (Refer to figure 3 below.) Altimeter 1 indicates;
A- 500 feet.
B- 1,500 feet.
C- 10,500 feet.
D- 9,500 feet.
70. (Refer to figure 3 below.) Altimeter 2 indicates;
A- 1.500 feet.
B- 4.500 feet.
C- 14.500 feet.
D- 10.500 feet.
71. The longitudinal axis of an airplane can be described as
A- From the bottom to the top of the airplane.
B- Between the tips of the wings
C- From the tail to the nose.
D- From the tip of the vertical stabilizer to the tip of the right wing
72. (Refer to figure 3 on page 44.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?
A- 1,2,and3.
B- 1 and 2 only
C- 1 only.
D- 2 only.
73. What is absolute altitude?
A- The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B- The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C- The height above the standard datum plane.
D- The altitude doesn't read directly from the altimeter.
74. Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
A- When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
B- When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
C- When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure.
A- Standard atmospheric pressure and altitude.
75. What is density altitude?
A- The height above the standard datum plane.
B- The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
C- The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
D- The height above the altimeter.
76. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A- At sea level, when the temperature is 0 °F.
B- When the altimeter has no installation error.
C- At standard temperature.
D- At sea level temperature mines 10 F
77. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
A- If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B- When at sea level under standard conditions.
C- When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at
D- Altimeter is un proper calibrated
78. What is true altitude?
A- The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
B- The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C- The height above the standard datum plane.
D- Aircraft above the ground level.
79. What is pressure altitude?
A- The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B- The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C- The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
D- The indicated altitude corrected when the pressure scale is set to 19.29.
80. Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates '
A- calibrated altitude at field elevation.
B- absolute altitude at field elevation.
C- true altitude at field elevation.
D- temporary altitude at field elevetion.
81. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
A- 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B- 70-foot increase in density altitude.
C- 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
D- 7000- foot increase in indicated altitude.
82. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.%, what is the approximate change in indication?
A- Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher.
B- Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
C- Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
D- Altimeter will indicate 1500 feet lower.
83. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
A- Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
B- Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
C- Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels, and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
84. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A- lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B- higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C- the actual altitude above sea level.
D- decrease the pressure altimeter read higher.
85. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
A- Air temperature lower than standard.
B- Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
C- Air temperature warmer than standard.
D- Air temperature cooler than standard.
86. Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
A- In colder than standard air temperature.
B- In warmer than standard air temperature.
D- When density altitude is lower than indicated altitude.
87. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A- the actual altitude above sea level.
B- higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C- lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
88. (Refer to figure 7 on page 49.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
A- The level flight indication to the horizon bar.
B- Horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
C- Horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
D- Miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
89. (Refer to figure 7 on page 49.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated
A- By the direction of deflection of the miniature airplane (C)
B- By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
C- By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
D- By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar B .
90. (Refer to figure 5 on page 49.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A- movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
B- angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
C- attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.
D- movement of the aircraft only the yaw anex.
91. (Refer to figure 6 on page 49.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A- set prior to flight on a known heading.
B- calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C- periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.
D- Set prior to flight on N-S direction.
FIGIRE 5.-Turn Coordinator.
FIGURE 6.-Heading Indicator. FIGIRE 7.-Attitude Indicator.
92. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A- the mixture set too rich.
B- higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C- too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
D- too much power and mixture set too rich.
93. Excessively high engine temperatures will
A- cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B- cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C- not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
94. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
A- a properly functioning thermostat.
B- air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
C- the circulation of lubricating oil.
D- Air flowing under the exhaust manifold.
95. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A- the oil level being too low.
B- operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C- operating with an excessively rich mixture.
D- the oil pressure being too high.
96. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A- improved engine performance.
B- uniform heat distribution.
C- balanced cylinder head pressure.
D- balanced propeller.
97. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
A- Enrich the fuel mixture.
B- Increase the RPM.
C- Reduce the airspeed.
D- Enlean the fuel mixture.
98. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
A- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
B- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
C- The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
D- The throttle controls engine oil pressure as adjusted on oil pressure transmitter.
99. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
A- avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
B- avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
C- always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
D- Always use a rich mixture with low RPM setting.
100. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
A- Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
B- Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
C- Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
D- Permits the pilot to select cruising fuel flow.
101. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb? A-A- Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B- Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
C- Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
D- Increase fuel flow and increase RPM.
102. With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
A- more susceptible to icing.
B- equally susceptible to icing.
C- susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
D- less susceptible to icing.
103. The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
A- automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
B- difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
C- increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
D- automatic fuel control unit.
104. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A- a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
B- engine roughness.
C- loss of RPM.
D- Loss of oil pressure.
While cruising at9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
A- The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
B- There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C- The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation
A- The fuel/air mixture may become excessively.
106. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
A- Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
B- Temperature between 32 and 50°F and low humidity.
C- Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high humidity.
D- Temperature between 70 and 90°F and low hight humidity.
107. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
A- high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
B- high as 95°F and there is visible moisture.
C- low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high.
D- Low as 15 F and the relative humidity is hight.
108. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
A- decrease engine performance.
B- increase engine performance.
C- have no effect on engine performance.
D- Decrease engine temparute.
109. Applying carburetor heat will
A- result in more air going through the carburetor.
B- enrich the fuel/air mixture.
C- not affect the fuel/air mixture.
D- Lean the fuel/air mixture.
110. What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
A- A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
B- The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
C- The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
D- The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
111. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
A- Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B- Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
C- Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
D- Check the results obtained with a richer setting of the mixture.
112. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
A- decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
B- decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
C- increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
D- decrease the amount of air in the mixture.
113. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A- an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
B- a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
C- a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
D- An increase in RPM and then decrease in oil pressure.
121. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
A- Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
B- Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
115. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed- pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
A- lean the mixture.
B- lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed
C- apply carburetor heat.
D- Decrease air speed.
116. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, if will most likely cause
A- a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
B- lower cylinder head temperatures.
C- detonation.
D- A rich fuel/air mixture.
117. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
A- combustion
B- pre-ignition
C- detonation
D- post-ignition.
118. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available? A- The next higher octane aviation gas.
B- The next lower octane aviation gas.
C- Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
D- Low leaded gas of the same octane rating.
119. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
A- force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
B- prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
A- All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
B- In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
C- Constantly except in starting the engine.
D- Constantly expect in shut-down the engine.
114. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
A- the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the. wiring is defective.
B- hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
C- the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
D- the spark plugs are out of order.
122. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
A- Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B- Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
C- Test each brake and the parking brake.
D- Adjust fuel flow and oil pressure.
123. The aileron is attached to the:
A- leading edge of the main wing.
B- rear spar of the horizontal stabilizer
C- vertical stabilizer rear main spar.
D- rear main wing spar
The load effects applied to the aircraft are
A- Tension, compression, torsion, shear, bending.
B- Tension, wind effect, gross weight.
C- Compression, pressure, potential energy, kinetic energy.
D- Only torsion.
125. Types of wing by their usage are
A- Supersonic serofil and transonic serofil.
B- Supersonic serofil, transonic serofil and high lift serofil.
C- Transonic serofil, low lift serofil and Supersonic serofil
D- Supersonic serofil and high lift serofil.
126. Nose wheel system
A- protects the tail section of the airplane and provides better view during landing and taxi.
B- protects the nose section of the airplane and provides better view during landing and taxi
C- does not have any braking function during high speed landings when touches the ground
D- All of above are true.
127. The basic flight controls system consist of :
A- Flap, elevator, rudder and their respective trim systems
B- Aileron, wings, rudder and their respective trim systems.
C- Aileron, elevator, rudder and their respective trim systems.
D- Aileron. elevator and rudder.
128. Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
A- call "contact" before touching the propeller.
B- be at the controls in the cockpit.
C- be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
D- Be at the controls out of the cockpit.
129. Maximum braking effectiveness is obtained by :
A- applying full even pressure to the toe brakes and applying full back pressure to the control column ( stick )
B- applying full even pressure to the right pedal and applying full back pressure to the control column ( stick )
C- applying full even pressure to the left pedal and applying full back pressure to the control column ( stick )
D- applying full even pressure to the toe brakes and applying full forward pressure to the control column ( stick )
130. Hydraulic fluid can be identified by
A- its smell.
B- weight.
C- its color
D- its volatility
131. Select the best answer for the low pressure fuel system components
A- Fuel tanks and necessary hardware until engine fuel system components
B- Fuel filters and check valves.
C- Collector tanks.
D- Main fuel control
132. The de-icing sequencing system inflates the tail section boots for approximately
A- 6 seconds, then the wing boots for the next 6 seconds.
B- 12 seconds, then the wing boots for the next 12 seconds.
C- 9 seconds, then the wing boots for the next 9 seconds.
D- 6 seconds, then the wing boots for the next 12 seconds.
133. What is the maximum allowable limits of the carbon monoxide for the human body to endure for the continued use ?
A- 100 PPM 0.01 %
B- 200 PPM 0.02 %
C- 2000 PPM 0.20 %
D- 50 PPM 0.005 %
134. Benzine is produced by
A- heating the oil 70°C - 120°C
B- heating the oil 60°C - 70°C
C- heating the oil 145°C - 220°C
D- heating the oil 55°C - 70°C
135. The unit for the pressure indicators is
A- PPH
B- HP
C- PSI
D- PPM
136. On the gas turbine engine operated airplane, the air for the air - conditioning system of the cabin and the passenger compartment is driven from the :
A- Compressor stages or from the useful air source.
B- Turbine stages.
C- Diffuser.
D- Combustion chamber.
137. Cabin heater depends upon the aircraft
A- oil system
B- fuel system
C- hydraulic system
D- oxygen system
138. Which component is not a part of high pressure fuel system?
A- Main fuel control
B- Main fuel pump
C- Main fuel filter
D- Boost pomp.
139. The types of the wing by their structure are
A- Mono-spar, multi-spar and boxbeam
B- Boxbeam, semimonocoque an aluminum
C- Stabilizer and maneuver.
D- All of above are falls.
140. The rudder is attached to the
A- rear spar of the horizontal stabilizer.
B- rear main wing spar.
C- vertical stabilizer rear main spar.
D- center of the wing.
CPL/IR (A) (ATP)
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWKEDGE
B
B
B
B
A
A
C
A
C
A
C
A
C
B
A
B
C
C
B
A
C
A
A
C
C
C
C
A
B
A
C
C
A
B
B
A
C
C
B
C
B
A
C
B
B
C
A
C
B
B
C
C
C
C
B
C
C
C
C
C
A
C
C
B
C
C
B
A
C
C
C
B
B
B
B
C
B
A
B
C
C
C
A
B
C
A
C
D
D
A
C
C
B
C
A
A
A
A
B
B
A
A
B
C
A
C
A
A
B
B
A
B
C
B
B
C
B
A
C
B
C
A
D
A
B
A
C
A
A
C
A
A
D
A
C
A
B
D
A
C
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