VFR Communications
1.What does the term "blind transmission" mean?
2. The time
is
about the hour?
3. What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean:
4. What does the phrase "Roger" mean:
5. Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ?
6. What does the phrase "Read back" mean:
7. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."?
8. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...":
9. Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:
10. The
message addressed to an
weather" is:
11. Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of:
12. Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"?
13. What does the abbreviation "AFIS" mean?
14. What does the abbreviation "FIR" mean?
15. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?
16. What does the abbreviation "HX" mean?
17. Which abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal time"?
18. If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ?
19. Which Q-code is used to report altitude ?
20. What does QDM mean?
21. What is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?
22. What does QTE mean?
23. What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"?
24. What does QDR mean?
25. What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"?
26. A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:
27. Flight safety messages are:
28. A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate
assistance is called:
29. Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?
a) radio teletype messages
b) meteorological messages
c) urgency messages
d) flight safety messages
30. The message to an aeronautical ground station "please call taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 10.45" is:
a) a flight safety message
b) an unauthorized message
c) an urgency message
d) a flight regularity message
31. The priority of the instruction "taxi RWY 05" is:
a) the same as "line-up RWY 08 and wait 727f516h "
b) greater than "caution, construction work left of twy"
c) less than "cleared to land"
d) greater than "transmit for QDM"
32. What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?
a) hotel
bravo
b) hotel
bravo juliett
c) hotel
bravo
d) hotel bravo juliett yankee charlie
33. Which is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or height?
a) three thousand five hundred
b) three five double zero
c) three five zero zero
d) tree five hundred
34. Which is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH?
a) QNH one double "o" one
b) QNH one zero zero one
c) QNH one thousand and one
d) QNH one double zero one
35. When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
a) local time (L.T.), AM and PM
b) local time (L.T.), 24-hour clock
c) coordinated universal time (UTC)
d) no specific system, as only the minutes are normally required
36. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this transmission (or message
indicated). The correct version is .":
a) QNH 1017, negative 1016
b) QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016
c) QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016
d) QNH 1017, correction 1016
37. Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required?
a) say again
b) repeat your last transmission
c) what was your message
d) repeat your message
38. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "I understand your message and I will comply with it"?
a) will comply with your instruction
b) wilco
c) roger
d) ok, will do it
39. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "yes"?
a) affirm
b) affirmative
c) yes
d) roger
40. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off?
a) ready to go
b) ready for take-off
c) ready to line-up
d) ready for departure or ready
41. Which of these phrases is used to inform the control twr that a pilot performs a missed approach?
a) pulling up
b) going around
c) will make another approach
d) overshooting
42. What does the instruction "Go around" mean?
a) proceed with your message
b) overtake the a/c ahead
c) make a 360o turn
d) carry out a missed approach
43. What does the instruction "orbit" mean?
a) right hand circuits are in use
b) turn right to avoid other traffic
c) leave the rwy to the right
d) make 360o turn to the right
44. What does the instruction "vacate left" mean?
a) turn left to leave the rwy
b) hold position on the L side of the rwy
c) clear the rwy immediately
d) give way to a/c from the left
45. What is the RTF c/s suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service?
a) TOWER
b) APRON
c) CONTROL
d) AERODROME
46. What is the RTF c/s suffix for the aeronautical station providing flight information service?
a) CONTROL
b) FLIGHT CENTRE
c) INFORMATION
d) FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
47. What is the RTF c/s suffix for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of a/c on the
manoeuvring area?
a) TOWER
b) CONTROL
c) APPROACH
d) GROUND
48. When may the name of the location or the c/s suffix in the c/s of an aeronautical station be omitted?
a) only after the aeronautical station has used the abbrev c/s
b) when satisfactory communication has been established
c) never
d) in dense traffic during rush hours
49. Which of the following abbreviated c/s of a/c XY-ABC is correct?
a) ABC
b) X-BC
c) XY-BC
d) BC
50. Which of the following abbreviated c/s of a/c Cherokee XY-ABC is correct?
a) Cherokee XY-BC
b) Cherokee X-ABC
c) Cherokee BC
d) Cherokee X-BC
51. When is an a/c allowed to use abreviated call sign?
a) after it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station
b) in dense traffic
c) only after satisfactory communication has been established
d) provided no confusion is likely to result
52. How should a/c XY-ABC call Stephenville
a) Stephenvile, XY-ABC
b)
c)
d) Tower, XY-ABC
53. A/c X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TWR on freq. 118.7. What is the correct response
to indicate that it will follow the instruction?
a) Stephenville TWR X-BC
b) 118.7, X-BC
c) Will change to TWR X-BC
d) Changing over X-BC
54. A/c X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS freq 123.25 on which information are beeing broadcast.
What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction?
a) Monitoring 123.25 X-BC
b) Will contact 123.25 X-BC
c) Checking 123.25 X-BC
d) Changing to 123.25 X-BC
55. What is the correct way to transmit and read back freq 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separeted by 25 MHz)
a) one two zero three seven
b) one two zero decimal three seven
c)
d) one two zero decimal three seven five
56. A/c XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TWR on 118.7.What is the correct way of
phrasing this transmission?
a) Stephenville TWR XY-ABC frequency check
b) Stephenville TWR XY-ABC radio check 118.7
c) Stephenville TWR XY-ABC signal check
d) Stephenville TWR XY-ABC pre-flight check
57. On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 3" mean:
a) No problem to understand
b) loud and clear
c) readable but with difficulty
d) unreadable
58. On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 5 mean:
a) Perfectly readable
b) readable but with difficulty
c) problem to understand
d) unreadable
59. Which elements of instructions or information shall be read back?
a) rwy in use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings
b) time check, rwy in use, altimeter setting, level restrictions, SSR codes
c) surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, rwy in use, altimeter setting, heading and speed instructions
d) rwy in use, altimeter setting, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions
60. Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back?
a) No, if the the communication channel is overloaded
b) Yes, unless authorised otherwise by the ATS authority concerned
c) No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
d) No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument
61. An a/c is instructed to hold short of the rwy in use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow
instructions?
a) wilco
b) will stop before
c) hoding short
d) roger
62. Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instructions: "X-BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before
turnning right, wind 270 degrees 6 kts, cleared for take off". What is the correct read back?
a) Right turn after 2500, roger X-BC
b) Straight ahead at 2500 ft turn right, cleared for take off, X-BC
c) Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BC
d) Straight ahead, 2500 ft right turn, wind west 6 kts, cleared for take-off, X-BC
63. How should a pilot terminate the read back of an ATC clearance.
a) with the ATC ground station call
b) with his own a/c c/s
c) with the word "wilco"
d) with the word "roger"
64. An a/c is flying north east at 2500
a) HDG N-E at level 25
b) HDG 045 at 2500 ft
c) HDG 45 at 2500 ft
d) 045 and 2500
65. What does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean?
a) Stand-by on freq 123.4 MHz
b) select code 1234 on the SSR transponder
c) make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
d) give a short comment for DF(direction finder)
66. Radar informs a/c X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean?
a) X-BC should perform an identification turn
b) X-BC is visible on the radar screen
c) X-BC should operate the ident button
d) radar indentification has been achieved
67. Radar instructs a/c X-BC:"X-BC squawk ident".What does this mean?
a) radar identification has been achieved by correlating observed radar blip with a/c XY-ABC
b) X-BC should perform an indetification turn of at least 20 degrees
c) X-BC shall operate the ident button
d) X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode S code
68. Radar instructs a/c X-BC: "X-BC squawk stand-by".What does this mean?
a) X-BC is requested to stand by as the radar controller is busy
b) X-BC is requested to stand by on the frequency
c) X-BC is requested to stand by for radar vectors
d) X-BC is requested to stand by position
69. Radar instructs a/c X-BC:"X-BC recycle 1015". What does this mean?
a)
X-BC has been identified at
b) X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015
c) X-BC is requested to set new code 1015
d) X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015
70. How shall a pilot inform the radar control unit that the a/c is not equipped with transponder:
a) negative squawk
b) transponder not available
c) no SSR
d) negative transponder
71/21. When the term "scattered" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of
clouds covering the sky is:
a) half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)
b) no clouds below 5000ft/GND
c) sky entirely covered (8 octas)
d) more than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)
72/22. When the term "broken" is used in an aviation weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering
the sky is:
a) 8 octas below 10.000ft
b) no clouds below 5000ft
c) 1 to 4 octas
d)
73/23. When the term "overcast" is used in an aviation weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds
covering the sky is:
a) less than 50%
b) 100%
c) no clouds but poor ground visibility
d) 50% or more
74/24. When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and
clouds are:
a) visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000ft/GND
b) visibility 8 km, no clouds below 3000ft/GND
c) visibility more then 5000m. no clouds below 1500m/GND
d) visibility 10km or more, no clouds below 1500ft/GND
75/25. How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language?
a) in feet and nautical miles
b) up to 1500m in meters, above in kilometers
c) up to 5000m in meters, above in kilometers
d) in nautical miles only
76/26. What is the correct way of expressing visibility?
a) visibility 1200 meters
b) visibility 1.2 kilometers
c) visibility 1.2nm
d) visibility 1200ft
77/27 What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts?
a) NDB frequencies
b) voice channel of an ILS
c) discrete VHF frequencies and/or VOR
d) DME voice channel
78/28. How can aviation weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by a/c in flight?
a) AFIS
b) VOLMET
c) ATIS
d) SIGMET
79/29. Which info can a/c in flight obtain by VOLMET?
a) SPECI and TAF
b) aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports
c) SIGMET
d) runway reports
80/30. Which is the transponder code for radio communication failure?
a) 7600
b) 7500
c) 6700
d) 7700
81/31. An a/c is squawking 7600. This indicates:
a) it is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure
b) it is diverting to the alternate a/d
c) it is about to make a forced landing
d) it is requesting immediate level change
An a/c station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency.
What action is required by the pilot?
a) return to the a/p of departure
b) attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency
c) continue the flight for the destination a/p without any communication
d) land at the nearest a/p without an ATC unit
83/33. What action is required by the pilot of an a/c station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with
an aeronautical station?
a) land at the nearest a/d appropriate to the route of flight
b) direct to the alternative a/p
c) squawk mode A code 7600
d) try to establish communications with other a/c or aeronautical stations
84/34 A message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" shall be transmitted:
a) on all available aeronautical stations frequencies
b) on the regional guard frequency
c) on the frequency presently in use
d) on the international emergency frequency
85/35. If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall
transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
a) "transmitting blind"
b) "read you one, read you one"
c) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
d) "How do you read?"
86/36. In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made:
a) twice on the designated frequency
b) on the emergency frequency only
c) during VFR flights only
d) only once on the designated frequency
87/37. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind du to receiver failure" during
an en-route flight, the a/c station shall also:
a) land at the nearest airfield/airport
b) advise the time of its next intended transmission
c) return to the a/p of departure
d) join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing
88/38. Under which of the following circumstances shall an a/c squawk 7600?
a) in case of radio communication failure
b) when flying over desert areas
c) when approaching a prohibited area
d) when entering bad weather areas
89/39. When shall the pilot of an a/c experiencing com fail keep a watch for instructions passed by visual
signals?
a) when the a/c is forming part of the a/d traffic at a controlled a/d
b) when the a/c is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled a/p
c) when entering a FIR during an IFR flight
d) when flying VFR above clouds
90/40. Distress is defined as:
a) a condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
b) a condition concerning the safety of an a/c or of a person on boar, but which does not require immediate
assistance
c) a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance
d) a condition concerning the attitude of an a/c when intercepting the localizer during ILS approach
91/41. An a/c in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:
a) Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan
b) DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA
c) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
d) URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY
92/42. The frequency used for the transmition of a "Mayday" call shall be:
a) the distress frequency 121.5 MHz
b) any other international emergency frequency
c) the frequency currently in use
d) any frequency at pilot's discretion
Which of the following frequency is an international emergency frequency:
a. 122.500 mhz
b. 121.500 mhz
c. 121.050 mhz
d. 6500 khz
An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700:
a. in distress
b. when passing the transition level
c. when following a SID
d. when flying within controlled airspace
Urgency is defined as:
a. a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
b. a condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach
c. a condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
d. a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, other vehicles or of a person on board but which does not require immediate assistance
An urgency message shall be preceded by the R/T urgency signal:
a. ALERFA, spoken three times
b. MAYDAY, spoken three times
c. PAN PAN, spoken three times
d. URGENCY, spoken three times
Which frequency shall be used for the transmission of an urgency call:
a. the air ground frequency in use at the time
b. the international emergency frequency
c. the regional guard frequency
d. any frequency at pilots discretion
Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service:
a. 108.00 - 117.975 MHz
b. 11650 - 13200 kHz
c. 1810 - 2850 kHz
d. 118.000 - 136.975 MHz
To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong:
a. very low frequency
b. medium frequency
c. very high frequency
d. low frequency
Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band:
a. 75 KHz
b. 25 KHz
c. 250 KHz
d. 50 KHz
What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:
a. the waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-waves
b. the waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influence
c. practically straight line similar to light waves
d. similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance
Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of UHF transmition:
a. the ionosphere
b. day and night effect
c. electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms
d. level of aircraft and terrain elevations
Under which conditions of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception
of the Tower frequency 118.2 MHz:
a. aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
b. aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
c. aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
d. aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over the terrain at FL 50 :
a. about 150 nm
b. about 8 nm
c. about 15 nm
d. about 85 nm
Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over the terrain at FL 100 :
a. about 12 nm
b. about 300 nm
c. about 120 nm
d. about 30 nm
Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction opposite to that in use:
a. to enter back runway
b. request backtrack on runway
c. backtrack clearance
d. clearance to backtrack
The clearance: "Cleared for immediate takeoff, runway 03" is:
a. an unauthorized message
b. a flight safety message
c. an urgency message
d. a flight regularity message
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
a. meteorological messages, direction finding messages, flight regularity messages
b. distress message, urgency message, direction finding message
c. distress message, flight safety message, urgency message
d. direction finding message, distress message, urgency message
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
a. flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message
b. flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message
c. flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message
d. meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message
The priority of the pilot`s message "request QDM" is:
a. less than "descend to FL .."
b. less than " request climb to FL ...."
c. greater than "turn left HDG .."
d. same as "latest QNH 1018"
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say "Wait and I will call you":
a. GO AHEAD
b. ROGER
c. WILCO
d. STANDBY
My message will be more effective and understandable if I:
a. stress every beginning of the message
b. use the "words twice" method
c. maintain the speaking volume at constant level
d. stress the end of message
What is meant by good microphone technique:
a. keep the microphone far away since it improves the readability
b. use a normal conversative tone, speak clearly and distinctly
c. speak very loudly into the microphone
d. make large use of hesitation sounds "er"
During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point:
a. the term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstood exists
b. the term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by 3 digits
c. the term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only
d. the term DECIMAL must always be transmited
What does the term "aeronautical station" mean:
a. any station established to exchange R/T communications
b. a station in the aeronautical mobile service located on land or, in certain circumstances, on board of a ship or platform at sea
c. an airborne station forming part of the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network (AFTN)
d. a station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board of an aircraft to exchange R/T communications
How shall a pilot ask for a QFE:
a. Request Queen Fox Easy
b.
Request
c.
Request
d.
Request
RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean:
a. X-BC should perform an identification turn
b. X-BC is not visible on the radar screen
c. X-BC should operate the IDENT button
d. radar identification has been achieved
IFR QUESTIONS
1. The term 'broadcast' means:
a. a R/T transmission from a ground station to an a/c in flight
b. a transmission containing meteorlogical and operational information to a/c engaged in flights over
remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations
c. a transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or
stations
d. a transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station
2. The time
is
confusion about the hour?
a. one six one five
b.
c.
d.
3. What does the phrase 'verify' mean?
a. consider that transmission as not sent
b. check and confirm with originator
c. repeat your last transmission
d. read back VDF bearing
4. What does the abbreviation IMC mean?
a. international meteorological channel
b. instrument meteorological conditions
c. in meteorological conditions
d. in most cases
5. What does the abbreviation AIS mean?
a. a/d identification signal area
b. a/d information service
c. aeronautical information service
d. a/p information system
6. What does the abbreviation SAR mean?
a. search and rescue
b. surveillance a/p radar
c. standard arrival route
d. secondary altimeter responder
7. What does the abbreviation ATIS mean?
a. air traffic information service
b. automatic terminal information service
c. airport terminal information service
d. automatic terminal information system
8. What is the correct way of transmitting the numbers 118.1 to indicate a frequency?
a. one one eight decimal one
b. one one eight point one
c. one one eight one
d.
9. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height?
a. one tree fife hundred
b. thirteen thousand five hundred
c. one tree tousand fife hundred
d. one three five zero zero
10. Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate the message 'Consider that transmission
as not sent':
a. cancel my last message
b. my last transmission is cancelled
c. disregard
d. forget it
11. When shall the phrase "take-off" be used by a pilot?
a. to inform TOWER when ready for departure
b. never, it is used only by the CONTROL TOWER
c. to acknowledge take-off clearance only
d. only when the a/c has already moved onto the active runway
12. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre?
a. abandoning take-off
b. aborting take-off
c. stopping
d. cancelling take-off
13. What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS information Golf has been received?
a. information Golf
b. we have the information
c. we have the ATIS Golf
d. weather Golf received
14. What is the R/T call sign of the aeronautical station providing Approach control ( no radar service):
a. RADAR
b. APPROACH
c. ARRIVAL
d. CONTROL
15. When transmitting RVR for Rwy 16, ATC will use the following phrase:
a. RVR Rwy 16 ... metres diagonal, ... metres diagonal, ... metres
b. RVR at the beginning of Rwy 16 is ... metres
c. RVR Rwy 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metres
d. the values of the transmissiometer are ... metres and ... metres
16. What does the 'friction coefficient 45' in a runway report mean:
a. braking action poor
b. braking action not measurable
c. braking action good
d. braking action medium
17. What does the 'friction coefficient 20' in a runway report mean:
a. braking action medium
b. braking action poor
c. braking action unreliable
d. braking action good
18. Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be 'unreliable'?
a. runway conditions normal
b. runway covered with dry snow
c. runway covered ice
d. runway covered with wet snow and slush
19. If you are requested to 'Report flight conditions', what does that mean:
a. indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
b. indicate weather conditions such as wind, visibility, temperature
c. indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC
d. indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR
20. A signal sent by R/T consisting of the spoken words Mayday, Mayday, Mayday means:
a. the a/c has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, a/c or vehicle
b. the a/c has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along the route of flight
c. imminent danger threatens the a/c and immediate assistance is required
d. the a/c is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
21. An a/c squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:
a. the a/c transceiver is u/s
b. the a/c is being hijacked
c. there is a sick passenger on board
d. the a/c is in distress
22. The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
a. an international emergency frequency
b. a regional UHF freq.
c. a freq. for air-to-air communications
d. an airline operation freq.
23. A signal sent by R/T consisting of the spoken words Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan means:
a. an a/c on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
b. the a/c has a very urgent message concerning the safety of a ship, a/c or other vehicle, but immediate
assistance is not required
c. imminent danfger threatens the a/c and immediate assistance is required
d. the a/c is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate
reclearance.
24. On hearing an urgency call/message a pilot shall:
a. monitor the freq. to ensure assistance if required
b. impose radio silence on the freq.-in-use
c. acknowledge the message immediately
d. change the freq. because radio silence will be imposed on the freq-in-use
25. What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean:
a. the time at which ATC expects that an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding point to
complete its approach for a landing
b. the time at which an arriving a/c expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid
serving the destination aerodrome
c. the time at which an arriving a/c, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome,
expects will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
d. the holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will
be initiated
26. When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "visual approach"?
a. a visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the destination
aerodrome are equal to or better than the required VMC minima
b. an approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of the instrument approach procedure is not
completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
c. an extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring the a/c into position for landing on a runway
which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach
d. an approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
27. What does the term 'clearance limit' mean?
a. the time at which an a/c is given an ATC clearance
b. the time after which an ATC clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been
commenced
c. the time of expiry of an ATC clearance
d. the point to which an a/c is granted an ATC clearance
28. An "Automatic Terminal Information Service" provides:
a. current met. and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR
b. weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR)
c. routine information to arriving and departing a/c by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast
d. information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of a/c operations.
32. What does the term "way point" mean :
a. a defined position on an a/d used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system
b. a specified geographic position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an a/c
employing area navigation
c. a general term meaning the taxiwaw and the runway system of an international a/p
d. a signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
33. What does the abbreviation INS mean :
a. international navigation service
b. international NOTAM system
c. inertial navigation service
d. instrument navigation system
34. What does the abbreviation MLS mean :
a. minimum safe level
b. microwave landing system
c. mean sea level
d. minimum sector level
35. What does the term SELCAL mean :
a. a system which permits the selective calling of individual a/c over radio
b. a system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services ATS units
c. system in which r/t communications take place in both directions simultaneously
d. system in which r/t communications can be established between a/c only
36. What does the abbreviation SSR mean :
a. surface strength frequency
b. search surveillance radar
c. secondary surveillence radar
d. standard snow report
37. What does the abbreviation RNAV mean :
a. area navigation
b. radar aided navigation
c. radio navigation
d. route navigation
38. What does the abbreviation RVR mean :
a. radar vectors requested
b. recleared via route
c. rwy visibility report
d. rwy visual range
39. What does the term 'Monitor' mean:
a. examine a system or procedure
b. listen out on frequency
c. establish radio contact with ...
d. wait and I will call you
40. What does the instruction 'Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for Tower' mean :
a. Fastair 345 should contact TWR on 118.9
b. Fastair 345 stand by on current frequency
c. Fastair 345 change freq to 118.9 on which a/d data are being broadcasted
d. Fastair 345 listen on freq 118.9 on which TWR will initiate further communication
41. Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on freq 118.0. What is the correct
way to indicate it will follow this instruction :
a. changing to ARRIVAL, F 345
b. changing over 118.0, F 345
c. Stephenvile ARRIVAL, F 345
d. 118.0 , F 345
42. What phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out :
a. impossible to make it
b. negative instruction
c. unable to comply
d. disregard
43. Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure:
a. overshooting
b. missed approach
c. pulling up
d. going around
44. What is the R/T call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar) :
a. ....APPROACH
b. ...RADAR
c. ...CONTROL
d. ...CENTRE
45. Which is the r/t c/s for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures :
a. ...RADAR
b. ...DEPARTURE
c. ...CONTROL
d. ...APPROACH
46. Which is the r/t c/s for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals:
a. ... APP
b. ... RADAR
c. ... DIRECTOR
d. ... ARRIVAL
47. What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 ?
a. 2345
b. Fastair 345
c. Fastair 45
d. no abbreviated form
48. What is the correct c/s of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the TWR and the APP unit, if the a/c has a
maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:
a. Fastair 345
b. Heavy Fastair 345
c. Fastair 345 heavy
d. Fastair 345 widebody
49. When shall an a/c in the heavy wake turbulence category include the word 'Heavy' immediately after
its call sign, e.g. 'Fastair 345 Heavy' :
a. in all calls to the a/d tower and the approach unit
b. in the initial call to the tower and the APP unit
c. in all calls
d. never
50. Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?
a. SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions
b. QNH, weather information, runway-in-use
c. ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
d. QNH, SSR code, approach and serviceability
51. What shall the pilot's read back be for: "Climb to FL280":
a. Climbing to FL two eighty.
b. Climbing two eight zero.
c. Climbing to two eighty.
d. Climbing to FL two eight zero.
52. What shall the pilot's read back be for: "Climb to 2500 ft":
53. What shall the pilot read back for the ATC clearance: "Fastair 345 to descend from FL100 to FL80":
54. Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted:
55. Blind transmission shall be made:
56. An a/c encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
57. An a/c on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The a/c is assumed to:
58. An a/c experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
59. An a/c encountering radio communications failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated aid servicing the destination a/d:
60. An a/c encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid servicing the destination a/d (no EAT received):
61. An a/c encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:
62. Within the European region, an a/c experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:
63. A departing a/c experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:
64. In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure on an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
65. In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
66. What does the spoken word "PAN PAN PAN" mean?
67. A message concerning a medical transport operated by a/c assigned exclusively to medical
transportation shall be preceded by the signal:
68. QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
69. QNH is the Q-code to indicate:
70. What does the word "disregard" mean?
71. What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ?
a. report readability
b. how do you read
c. read back
d. read you loud and clear
72. What does the word "negative" mean ?
a. proposed action granted
b. consider that transmission as not sent
c. disregard last instruction
d. permission not granted
73. Which of the following calls is a "general call" ?
a.YX-EFG, YX-EFG over
b.YX-DEF, Stephenville Control
c. All stations, Stephenville Control
d.YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE, Stephenville Control
74. Must a "general call" be acknowledged ?
a.Yes, from all stations in a random sequence
b.Yes, but only from the station first called
c.Yes, from all stations in the sequencethey have been addressed
d. No
75. What is meant by the phrase"Readability 2" ?
a. readable but with difficulty
b. readable
c. readable now & then
d. unreadable
76. What is meant by the phrase"Readability 1" ?
a. readable but with difficulty
b. unreadable
c. readable
d. perfectly readable
77. What is meant by the phrase"Readability 4" ?
a. readable now & then
b. readable
c. perfectly readable
d .readable but with difficulty
78. What does the word "acknowledge" mean ?
a. repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received
b. pass me the following report
c. let me know that you have received & understood this message
d. repeat all of your last transmission
What does the word "approved" mean ?
a. I repeat for clarity or emphasis
b. authorized to proceed under the conditions specified
c. that is correct
d. permission for proposed action granted
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate separation between portions of a message ?
a. I say again
b. stop
c. break
d. over
What does the word "cancel" mean ?
a. Wait and I will call you
b. Annul the previously transmitted clearance
c. Consider that transmission as not sent
d. A change has been made to your last clearance
Before transmitting the pilot should :
a. listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur
b. make sure that the a/c is leveled off
c. make sure the emergency frequency is tuned on at the same time
d. always write the message and read it during transmission
What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched "on" ) ?
a. none
b. often stations will have to use "words twice" technique
c. readability will improve for all stations
d. the frequency cannot be used by others
What does the phrase "break break" mean ?
a. the exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected
b. it indicates separation between portions of a message transmitted to an a/c
c. it indicates separation between messages transmitted to different a/c in a very busy enviroment
d. my transmission is ended and I expect a response from you
What does the term "check" mean ?
a. read back my last instruction
b. confirm your last transmission
c. examine a report or procedure
d. I understand your message
Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorisation to proceed under specified conditions ?
a. approved
b. I say again : proceed
c. cleared
d. go ahead
Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc. ?
a. verify
b. acknowledge
c. confirm
d. correct
What does the word "contact" mean ?
a. establish radio contact with ...
b. radar contact
c. that is correct
d. listen out on (frequency)
89. What word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ?
a. confirm
b. verify
c. read back
d. I say again
90. What does the word "correct" mean ?
a. permission for proposed action not granted
b. negative, the correct version is ...
c. an error has been made in this transmision. The correct version is ...
d. that is correct
91. Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or
message ?
a. correct
b. negative
c. correction
d. disregard
What does the word "negative" mean ?
a. annul the previously transmitted clearance
b. that is not correct
c. I say again
d. consider that transmission as not sent
93. Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance
and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof ?
a. approved
b. break break
c. recleared
d. cleared
94. What does the word "recleared" mean ?
a. consider that transmission as not sent
b. permission for proposed action granted
c. a change has been made to your last clearance
d. an error has been made on my last transmission
95. What does the word "report" mean ?
a. repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received
b. say again
c. pass me the following information
d. examine a system or procedure
96. What word or phrase shal be used if you want to say: " Reduce your rate of speech" ?
a. say again
b. speak slower
c. repeat
d. words twice
97. What does the word "wilco" mean?
a. I read you five
b. I have received all of your last transmission
c. I understood your message and will comply with it
d. as communication is difficult I will call you later
98. What is the RTF call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar service (in general) ?
a. RADAR - CONTROL
b. CONTROL
c. RADAR - SERVICE
d. RADAR
99. What is the RTF call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery ?
a. CLEARANCE DELIVERY
b. CLEARANCE
c. DELIVERY
d. RADIO
100. When an a/c station receives the call :"All Stations, Stephenville Radar, STOP transmitting,
MAYDAY it is requested" ?
a. to assist Stephenville Radar in handling the distress traffic
b. to leave the freqency in use
c. to continue normal communication on the frequency in use
d. not to interfere with the distress communication
When an a/c station receives the call "All Stations, Stephenville Radar, distress traffic ended, it is
requested :
a. to acknowledge receipt of this message
b. to discontinue communication with Stephanvile Radar
c. to resume normal communication with Stephenvile Radar
d. to impose silence to other stations in the vicinity
102. Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence ?
a. "Stop transmitting, mayday"
b. "Stop transmitting, emergency"
c. "Stop transmitting, distress"
d. "All stations in this frequeny, mayday traffic"
103. The distress communications and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message.
Which words shall this message include :
a. distress traffic ended
b. emergency communication finished
c. Mayday traffic ended
d. disregard distress communication, OUT
104. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : Communicationis difficult, please send every word or
group of words twice :
a. message second time
b. say again, say again
c. words twice
d. repeat twice
105. When an a/c is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition.
Which words shall this message include :
a) cancel distress
b) ..Mayday, resuming normal operations
c) ...Mayday cancelled
d) ...distress condition terminated
106. The urgency message to be sent by an a/c reporting an emergency condition shall contain at least
the following elements/details :
a) a/c c/s, destination a/p, ETA at destination, route of flight
b) a/c identification, a/d of departure, level and heading
c) name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required
d) a/c c/s, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading
107. Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) there is no difference regarding priority between distress and urgency communications
b) ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications
c) the urgency communication have priotity over all others communications
d) the urgency communication have priority over all the other communications, except distress
108. To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active rwy a pilot shall report to the controller :
a) rwy free
b) clear of rwy
c) rwy vacated
d) rwy cleared
109. Durring radar vectoring the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to HDG 360°. The correct
readback of this instruction is :
a) heading three hundred sixty, X-BC
b) heading three six zero, X-BC
c) heading north, X-BC
d) a readback is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified
110. Radio
silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of :
a) distress traffic
b) overload of the frequency
c) technical difficulties
d) urgency communication
111. Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an a/c in flight must be read back :
1. descent to 3000 ft
2. wind 240, 15 kts, gusts 30 kts
3. turn right, HDG 210
4. reduce speed to 160 kts
5. squawk 1723
6. braking action poor
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5
d) all
112. The expression "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" implies that no answer is expected, it shall
be used by :
a) a radar controller performing PAR or SRE final approach
b) an a/c station doing blind transmission at a "non towered" airfield
c) a ground station broadcasting information for all listening stations
d) an a/c station being aware of receiver failure
113. When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station the call starts with :
a) general broadcats
b) all stations
c) message to all a/c on this frequency
d) please listen
114. Fastair 345 has been instructed "Standby 118.9 for TWR". What does this instruction mean?
a) Fastair 345 shall establish radio contact with TWR on frequency 118.9
b) Fastair shall change to frequency 118.9 and listen out, until the TWR will initate further communications
c) Fastair 345 shall change to frequency 118.9 on which information is being broadcast
d) Fastair 345 shall squawk standby and then establish contact with TWR on frequency 118.9
115.Fastair 345 is instructed to contact Stephenville RADAR on channel 132.010 Mhz. How would Fastair
345 adress RADAR that it it not 8.33 Khz equipped ?
a) negative on 132.008
b) negative channel 132.0083
c) negative frequency 132.010
d) negative eight decimal three three
116. How shall a pilot inform the ATS unit that his a/c does not have 8.33 Khz capability :
a) we do not have this frequency
b) negative eight decimal three three
c) negative eight point three three frequency equipment
d) my a/c is not equipped with eight point three three
117. What does the instruction " Fastair 345 recycle 1240 " mean :
a) Fastair 345 is requested to set new code 1240
b) RADAR informs F345 that radar services terminated at time 1240
c) F345 is requested to reselect assigned mode and code 1240
d) RADAR instruct F345 to stop squawk 1240 immediately
118. What is the maximum distance at which you may expect strong VHF reception over flat terrain at FL140
a) about 140 nm
b) about 300 nm
c) about 240 nm
d) about 40 nm
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